This week in class, we were challenged to rationalize the "invert and multiply" rule. Why does it work? How can we explain why it works? How can we show that it works? Below is my thought process on why we are able to "invert and multiply" two fractions that are being divided:
Let's use the following equation:
1/2 ÷ 3/4
Since these fractions are being divided, we could rewrite the equation as:
1÷3
2÷4
Now we have a fraction in the numerator (1/3) and a fraction in the denominator (2/4). We can now multiply the entire equation by the fraction of 3/3 (to get rid of the 3 in the numerator fraction) and 4/4 (to get rid of the 4 in the denominator fraction)...excuse my terminology!:
[(1/3) ÷ (2/4)] x (3/3) x (4/4)
which can also look like:
(1÷3)(3)(4)
(2÷4)(3)(4)
As you can see, multiplying then dividing by 3 in the numerator and 4 in the denominator would cancel the respective terms, leaving:
(1) x (4)
(2) x (3)
If we separate the terms, we see our rule... invert and multiply!
(1/2) x (4/3)
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| https://www.pinterest.com/explore/dividing-fractions/ |
Thanks!
UPDATE: Here is a link to essentially the same proof as the one shown in the blog, but shown in a much clearer manner! It also shows other ways of proving the "invert and multiply rule"!
http://www.mikesmathclub.org/div_fractions.pdf

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